Natural Vegetation-Forest types and distribution, wild life, conservation, biosphere reserves

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In India, at present forest areas cover about 76.5 million hectares of land, which is about 23 per cent of the total geographical area. It ranges from about 87 per cent in Andaman & Nicobar Islands to only about 4 percent in Haryana making to range difference of 83 percent. According to our National Forest Policy, 33% of the total geographical area of the country should be under the forest cover to maintain ecological balance. Unfortunately, it is below the norm outlined in our forest policy. The vegetation found in India can be divided into six main types. They are tropical evergreen forests, tropical deciduous forests, thorn forests, tidal forests and mountain forests.

Tropical Evergreen forests grow in the high rainfall areas of the Western Ghats, North –eastern India and the https://exam.pscnotes.com/andaman-and-nicobar-islands”>Andaman and Nicobar Islands. These forests grow in areas where the monsoon period lasts for several months.

Deciduous forests are found in regions with a moderate amount of seasonal rainfall that lasts for only a few months. Most of the forests in which Teak trees grow are of this type. The Deciduous trees shed their leaves during the winter and hot summer months.

Dry tropical thorn forest occurs in areas of low rainfall. Forest types are saprophytic in nature. Trees are shorter than deciduous type. These forests mostly occur in the scanty rainfall region of Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana. Most of the species are ‘acacia’ type.

Tidal Forests grow along the coast especially in the river deltas. These Plants are uniquely adapted to be able to grow in a mix of saline and freshwater. They grow luxuriantly in muddy areas covered with silt that the rivers have brought down. The mangrove trees have breathing roots that emerge from the mud banks.

 

Conservation of Biodiversity and Wildlife

Biodiversity, or biological diversity, is the variety of all life forms.Sum total of all the variety of living organisms on earth constitute biodiversity. There are three Levels of Biodiversity:

  • Genetic diversity—the variety of genetic information contained in individual plants, animals and micro-organisms
  • Species diversity—the variety of species
  • ecosystem diversity—the variety of habitats, ecological communities and ecological processes.

Biodiversity is not static; it is constantly changing. It can be increased by genetic change and evolutionary processes, and it can be reduced by threats which lead to Population decline and extinction.

Biodiversity is not uniformly distributed across the geographical regions of the earth. Certain regions of the world are very rich in biodiversity. We call such areas as “mega diversity zones”. We also refer to them as “hot-spots”. For example, India accounts for only 2.4 % of the land area of the world; but it contributes approximately 8% species to the global diversity due to existence of such pockets.

Humans depend for their sustenance, Health, well being and cultural Growth on nature. Biotic Resources provide food, fruit, seed, fodder, medicines and a host of other goods and Services. Importance of Biodiversity is due to:-

  • Food, fibre, medicines, fuel wood and ornamental plants
  • Protection of Water Resources
  • Soil protection
  • Breeding material for crop improvement
  • Nutrient storage and cycling
  • Pollution reduction
  • Climate stability
  • Maintenance of ecological processes

Causes of Loss of Biodiversity:-

  • Direct ways: Deforestation, hunting, poaching, commercial exploitation
  •  Indirect ways: Loss or modification of the natural habitats, introduction of exotic species, pollution, etc.
  •  Natural causes – Climate Change.

International efforts for Biodiversity conservation:-

  • Convention on Biological Diversity :-The objectives of the CBD are the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from commercial and other utilization of genetic resources. The agreement covers all Ecosystems, species, and genetic resources.
    CITES Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
    The CITES aims to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. Through its three appendices, the Convention accords varying degrees of protection to more than 30,000 plant and animal species.
  • CMS Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals :-The CMS, or the Bonn Convention aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range. Parties to the CMS work together to conserve migratory species and their habitats by providing strict protection for the most endangered migratory species, by concluding regional multilateral agreements for the conservation and management of specific species or categories of species, and by undertaking co-operative research and conservation activities.
  • International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture-notes-for-state-psc-exams”>Agriculture :-The objectives of the Treaty are the conservation and sustainable use of plant genetic resources for food and agriculture and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of their use, in harmony with the Convention on Biological Diversity, for Sustainable Agriculture and Food Security. The Treaty covers all plant genetic resources for food and agriculture, while its Multilateral System of Access and Benefit-sharing covers a specific list of 64 crops and forages. The Treaty also includes provisions on Farmers’ Rights.
  • Ramsar Convention On Wetlands (popularly known as the Ramsar Convention) :-The Ramsar Convention provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The convention covers all aspects of wetland conservation and wise use, recognizing wetlands as ecosystems that are extremely important for biodiversity conservation in general and for the well-being of human communities.
  • WHC World Heritage Convention (WHC) :-The primary mission of the WHC is to identify and conserve the world’s cultural and natural heritage, by drawing up a list of sites whose outstanding values should be preserved for all humanity and to ensure their protection through a closer co-operation among nations.
  • IPPC International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) :-The IPPC aims to protect world plant resources, including cultivated and wild plants by preventing the introduction and spread of plant pests and promoting the appropriate measures for their control. The convention provides the mechanisms to develop the International Standards for Phytosanitary Measures (ISPMs), and to help countries to implement the ISPMs and the other obligations under the IPPC, by facilitating the national capacity development, national reporting and dispute settlement.
    The Secretariat of the IPPC is hosted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).

There are several strategies which are adapted for conservation of Biodiversity. Some of these are:

Legislation Formal policies and programmes for conservation and sustainable utilisation of biodiversity resources dates back to several decades. The concept of environmental protection is enshrined in the Indian constitution in articles 48a and 51a(g). Major central acts relevant to biodiversity include:
• Environment Protection Act, 1986
• Fisheries Act, 1897
• Forest Act, 1927
• Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
• Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 and Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act 1991

In-situ conservation Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats is known as in situ conservation. The established natural habitats are:
• National parks and sanctuaries
• Biosphere reserves
• Nature reserves
• Reserved and protected forests
• Preservation plots
• Reserved forests

Ex-situ conservation like Boatanical and Zoological parks
Recording Indigenous Knowledge
Community Participation in Biodiversity Conservation

PIPES & CISTERN

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Pipes and Cistern

 

  1. Inlet:

A pipe connected with a tank or a cistern or a reservoir, that fills it, is known as an inlet.

 

Outlet:

A pipe connected with a tank or cistern or reservoir, emptying it, is known as an outlet.

 

  1. If a pipe can fill a tank in xhours, then:
part filled in 1 hour = 1 .
x
  1. If a pipe can empty a tank in yhours, then:
part emptied in 1 hour = 1 .
y
  1. If a pipe can fill a tank in xhours and another pipe can empty the full tank in y hours (where y > x), then on opening both the pipes, then
the net part filled in 1 hour = 1 – 1 .
x y
  1. If a pipe can fill a tank in xhours and another pipe can empty the full tank in y hours (where x > y), then on opening both the pipes, then
the net part emptied in 1 hour = 1 – 1 .
y x

 

 

Questions:

 

Level-I:

 

1. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes, and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P,Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of the solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3 minutes?
A.
5
11
B.
6
11
C.
7
11
D.
8
11

 

2. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. If all the three pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in:
A.
1 13 hours
17
B.
2 8 hours
11
C.
3 9 hours
17
D.
4 1 hours
2

 

3. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:
A.
4 1 hours
3
B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 14 hours
 

4.

 Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:
A. 5 min.
B. 9 min.
C. 10 min.
D. 15 min.

 

5. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:
A. 6 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 15 hours
D. 30 hours
 

 

6.

  

 

Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is:
A. 60 gallons
B. 100 gallons
C. 120 gallons
D. 180 gallons

 

7. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
A. 20 hours
B. 25 hours
C. 35 hours
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

 

8. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours

 

9. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
A. 12 min
B. 15 min
C. 25 min
D. 50 min

 

10. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?
A. 10 min. 20 sec.
B. 11 min. 45 sec.
C. 12 min. 30 sec.
D. 14 min. 40 sec.
 

 

 

 

11.

  

 

Level-II:

 

One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.

 

12. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
A. 15 min
B. 20 min
C. 27.5 min
D. 30 min

 

13. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
A. 3 hrs 15 min
B. 3 hrs 45 min
C. 4 hrs
D. 4 hrs 15 min

 

14. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:
A. 6 hours
B.
6 2 hours
3
C. 7 hours
D.
7 1 hours
2

 

15. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
 

 

 

16.

  

 

How much time will the leak take to empty the full cistern?
I. The cistern is normally filled in 9 hours.
 II. It takes one hour more than the usual time to fill the cistern because of la leak in the bottom.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

 

17.
How long will it take to empty the tank if both the inlet pipe A and the outlet pipe B are opened simultaneously?
I. A can fill the tank in 16 minutes.
 II. B can empty the full tank in 8 minutes.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

 

18.
If both the pipes are opened, how many hours will be taken to fill the tank?
I. The capacity of the tank is 400 litres.
II. The pipe A fills the tank in 4 hours.
 III. The pipe B fills the tank in 6 hours.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. All I, II and III
D. Any two of the three
E. Even with all the three statements, answer cannot be given.

 

 

Answers:

 

Level-I:

 

Answer:1 Option B

 

Explanation:

Part filled by (A + B + C) in 3 minutes = 3 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 x 11 = 11 .
30 20 10 60 20

 

Part filled by C in 3 minutes = 3 .
10

 

 Required ratio = 3 x 20 = 6 .
10 11 11

 

Answer:2 Option C

 

Explanation:

Net part filled in 1 hour 1 + 1 – 1 = 17 .
5 6 12 60

 

 The tank will be full in 60 hours i.e., 3 9 hours.
17 17

 

 

Answer:3 Option D

 

Explanation:

Work done by the leak in 1 hour = 1 – 3 = 1 .
2 7 14

Leak will empty the tank in 14 hrs.

 

 

Answer:4 Option B

 

Explanation:

Let B be turned off after x minutes. Then,

Part filled by (A + B) in x min. + Part filled by A in (30 –x) min. = 1.

 x 2 + 1 + (30 – x). 2 = 1
75 45 75

 

11x + (60 -2x) = 1
225 75

11x + 180 – 6x = 225.

x = 9.

 

 

Answer:5 Option C

 

Explanation:

Suppose, first pipe alone takes x hours to fill the tank .

Then, second and third pipes will take (x -5) and (x – 9) hours respectively to fill the tank.

1 + 1 = 1
x (x – 5) (x – 9)

 

x – 5 + x = 1
x(x – 5) (x – 9)

(2x – 5)(x – 9) = x(x – 5)

x2 – 18x + 45 = 0

(x – 15)(x – 3) = 0

x = 15.    [neglecting x = 3]

 

 

Answer:6 Option C

 

Explanation:

Work done by the waste pipe in 1 minute = 1 – 1 + 1
15 20 24

 

    = 1 – 11
15 120

 

    = – 1 .    [-ve sign means emptying]
40

 

 Volume of 1 part = 3 gallons.
40

Volume of whole = (3 x 40) gallons = 120 gallon

 

 

Answer:7 Option C

 

Explanation:

Suppose pipe A alone takes x hours to fill the tank.

Then, pipes B and C will take x and x hours respectively to fill the tank.
2 4

 

1 + 2 + 4 = 1
x x x 5

 

7 = 1
x 5

x = 35 hrs.

 

Answer:8 Option C

 

Explanation:

Let the cistern be filled by pipe A alone in x hours.

Then, pipe B will fill it in (x + 6) hours.

1 + 1 = 1
x (x + 6) 4

 

x + 6 + x = 1
x(x + 6) 4

x2 – 2x – 24 = 0

(x -6)(x + 4) = 0

x = 6.     [neglecting the negative value of x]

 

 

Answer:9 Option A

 

Explanation:

Part filled by A in 1 min = 1 .
20

 

Part filled by B in 1 min = 1 .
30

 

Part filled by (A + B) in 1 min = 1 + 1 = 1 .
20 30 12

Both pipes can fill the tank in 12 minutes.

 

 

Answer:10 Option D

 

Explanation:

Part filled in 4 minutes = 4 1 + 1 = 7 .
15 20 15

 

Remaining part = 1 – 7 = 8 .
15 15

 

Part filled by B in 1 minute = 1
20

 

1 : 8 :: 1 : x
20 15

 

x = 8 x 1 x 20 = 10 2 min = 10 min. 40 sec.
15 3

The tank will be full in (4 min. + 10 min. + 40 sec.) = 14 min. 40 sec.

 

Level-II:

 

Answer:11 Option C

 

Explanation:

Let the slower pipe alone fill the tank in x minutes.

Then, faster pipe will fill it in x minutes.
3

 

1 + 3 = 1
x x 36

 

4 = 1
x 36

x = 144 min.

 

 

 

Answer:12 Option D

 

Explanation:

Part filled by (A + B) in 1 minute = 1 + 1 = 1 .
60 40 24

Suppose the tank is filled in x minutes.

Then, x 1 + 1 = 1
2 24 40

 

x x 1 = 1
2 15

x = 30 min.

 

Answer:13 Option B

 

Explanation:

Time taken by one tap to fill half of the tank = 3 hrs.

Part filled by the four taps in 1 hour = 4 x 1 = 2 .
6 3

 

Remaining part = 1 – 1 = 1 .
2 2

 

2 : 1 :: 1 : x
3 2

 

 x = 1 x 1 x 3 = 3 hours i.e., 45 mins.
2 2 4

So, total time taken = 3 hrs. 45 mins.

 

Answer:14 Option C

 

Explanation:

(A + B)’s 1 hour’s work = 1 + 1 = 9 = 3 .
12 15 60 20

 

(A + C)’s hour’s work = 1 + 1 = 8 = 2 .
12 20 60 15

 

Part filled in 2 hrs = 3 + 2 = 17 .
20 15 60

 

Part filled in 6 hrs = 3 x 17 = 17 .
60 20

 

Remaining part = 1 – 17 = 3 .
20 20

 

Now, it is the turn of A and B and 3 part is filled by A and B in 1 hour.
20

Total time taken to fill the tank = (6 + 1) hrs = 7 hrs.

 

Answer:15 Option C

 

Explanation:

Part filled in 2 hours = 2 = 1
6 3

 

Remaining part = 1 – 1 = 2 .
3 3

 

 (A + B)’s 7 hour’s work = 2
3

 

(A + B)’s 1 hour’s work = 2
21

C’s 1 hour’s work = { (A + B + C)’s 1 hour’s work } – { (A + B)’s 1 hour’s work }

   = 1 – 2 = 1
6 21 14

C alone can fill the tank in 14 hours.

 

Answer:16 Option E

 

Explanation:

  1. Time taken to fill the cistern without leak = 9 hours.
Part of cistern filled without leak in 1 hour = 1
9
  1. Time taken to fill the cistern in presence of leak = 10 hours.
Net filling in 1 hour = 1
10

 

Work done by leak in 1 hour = 1 – 1 = 1
9 10 90

Leak will empty the full cistern in 90 hours.

Clearly, both I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Correct answer is (E).

 

 

 

 

Answer:17 Option E

 

Explanation:

 I. A’s 1 minute’s filling work = 1
16

 

II. B’s 1 minute’s filling work = 1
8

 

(A + B)’s 1 minute’s emptying work = 1 – 1 = 1
8 16 16

Tank will be emptied in 16 minutes.

Thus, both I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Correct answer is (E).

 

Answer:18 Option B

 

Explanation:

  II. Part of the tank filled by A in 1 hour = 1
4

 

III. Part of the tank filled by B in 1 hour = 1
6

 

(A + B)’s 1 hour’s work = 1 + 1 = 5
4 6 12

 

 A and B will fill the tank in 12 hrs = 2 hrs 24 min.
5

So, II and III are needed.

Correct answer is (B).

Art, Sculpture and Architecture in Kushana Empire

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The Kushana period witnessed a remarkable development in art, sculpture and architecture. The https://exam.pscnotes.com/gandhara-school-of-art”>Gandhara school of art and Sculp­ture marked a happy blending of the Graceo-Romano-Buddhist style and techniques. The distinguishing features of the Gandhara Sculp­ture owed their origin to Greek and Roman styles yet the art essen­tially was Indian in spirit. The Gandhara artists had the hand of a Greek but the heart of an India.

The most remarkable contribu­tion of the Gandhara School of art is to be seen in the evolution of the image of Buddha, perhaps in imitation of the Greek God Apollo. Images of Buddha and Bodhisatva illustrating the past and present lives of Buddha were executed in black stone. The figures show an excellent idea of human anatomy that swayed the artists.

These works of art offer a striking contrast to similar art that we witness else­where in India. The smooth round features of the idealised human figures, draped in transparent and semi-transparent cloth closely fit­ting to the body and revealing its outline were due to the influ­ence of the Hellenistic art of Asia Minor and the Roman Empire.

The images of Buddha pertaining to the Gandhara school cen­tres of which were Gandhara, Jalalabad, Hadda and Baniyan in Afghanistan, Peshawar and Swat Valley, were more animated and anatomically perfect than those found in other parts of India. While the former are more beautiful physically and accurate in anatomical details as such more realistic, the Indian art and sculpture which pro­duced the images of Buddha were more idealistic giving a spiritual and sublime expression to the images.

The technique of the Gan­dhara School of art of the Kushana period spread through China to the Far East and influenced the art of China and Japan. The Gandhara art, according to V. A. Smith, was based on the cosmopolitan art of the Asia Minor and the Roman Empire.

There were also purely Indian schools of art in India during the period of the Kushanas. There were the schools of art at Amaravati, Jagayyapeta and Nagarjunikonda. In the Amaravati human figures are characterised by slim, blithe features and have been repre­sented in most difficult poses and curves. The technique of art reach­ed a high standard of development. Plants and flowers, particularly lotuses, have been represented in the most perfect, lifelike manner.

Two Chaityas and a Stupa discovered at Nagarjunikonda are the relics of the indigenous school of art and show a high standard of development. The limestone panel of figures depicting the nativity of Buddha is an excellent piece of sculpture of the Kushana period which was entirely indigenous.

Architecture of the Kushana period was not so remarkable as the sculpture of the period. There were beautiful temples, monas­teries, Stupas which indicate considerable development during the period although the technique of architecture did not attain the standard of excellence of sculpture. The famous tower of Kanishka at Purushapura (Peshawar) was one of the wonders of the world. Much of the architectural specimens of the period perished with time.

Caves hewn in solid rock with pillars and sculptures, hundreds of which have been found in different parts of the Kushana Empire show a great improvement upon the technique of excavation that was in use during the time of Asoka. A Chaitya with rows of columns on two sides was a fine work of art of sculpture and architecture. The Chaitya at Karle is an excellent illustration.

Fa-Hien who visited India during the rule of Chandragupta II {5th century) was struck with wonder to find a large number of Stupas, dagobas (small stupa), Chaityas and images of Buddha carved out of stone during the Kushana period.

There has been a sharp difference of opinion about the celebrity, and the extent of influence of the Gandhara art upon the Indian art during the reign of the Kushanas. Modern scholars think that the Gandhara School of sculpture has attained a celebrity perhaps beyond its merits.

According to some European scholars, the Gandhara School of art was the only school in Ancient India which can claim a place in the domain of art. There are others who are of the opinion that the source of subsequent development of Indian art as well as of the Far East was the Gandhara School of art which developed as a result of a happy blending of the Graco-Romano-Buddhist art.

But despite the foreign influence upon the school of Gandhara art, scholars like Havell, Will Durant, R. C. Majumdar and others are of the opinion that the influence, Hellenistic and Roman, upon the Indian art which was the Gandhara School of art was technical but spirit and the subject matter of the art was purely Indian.

  1. D. Banerjee’s view that the Gandhara art influenced the Indian art for nearly five centuries to follow is untenable on the ground that there were indigenous schools of art at Ainaravati, Nagarjunkonda, etc. where there was no influence of Gandhara School of art. The influence of the Gandhara art failed to penetrate into the interior of India and had no influence on the later development of the Indian, art. But the Gandhara School of art achieved a grand success in. becoming the parent of the Buddhist art of Eastern and Chinese Turkestan, Mongolia, China, Korea and Japan.

Literature:

The Kushana period witnessed a remarkable development of literature and Sanskrit language. Under the patronage enjoyed by the scholars and Buddhist philosophers of the time a massive develop­ment in secular and religious literature took place. A large number of standard works in Sanskrit language were written during the period.

Asvaghosha’s Buddhacharita, Saudarananda Kavya, Vajrasuchi, Sariputta Prakarana, Vasumitra’s Mahabibhasa—regarded as the Bud­dhist encyclopaedia, Nagarjuna’s Madhyamika-Sutra in which the theory of relativity was propounded, Charaka’s work on medicine, etc. contributed to the fund of human knowledge. Under the Kushanas the royal court became a seat of luminaries mentioned above as also of the Political Scientist Mathara, Greek engineer Agesilaus, etc.

Important Formulas – Percentage

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  • Percentage

    Percent means for every 100

    So, when percent is calculated for any value, it means that we calculate the value for every 100 of the reference value.

    percent is denoted by the symbol %. For example, x percent is denoted by x%

  • x%=x/100

    Example : 25%=25/100=1/4

  • To express x/y as a percent,we have x/y=(x/y×100)%

    Example : 1/4=(1/4×100)%=25%

  • If the price of a commodity increases by R%, the reduction in consumptionso as not to increase the expenditure = [R/(100+R)×100]%
  • If the price of a commodity decreases by R%, the increase in consumptionso as not to decrease the expenditure = [R/(100−R)×100]%
  • If the Population of a town = P and it increases at the rate of R% per annum, thenPopulation after n years = P((1+R)/100))n
  • If the population of a town = P and it increases at the rate of R% per annum, thenPopulation before n years = P((1+R)/100))n
  • If the present value of a machine = P and it depreciates at the rate of R% per annum,

ThenValue of the machine after n years = P((1-R)/100))n

  • If the present value of a machine = P and it depreciates at the rate of R% per annum,

ThenValue of the machine before n years = P((1-R)/100))n

 

Solved Examples

Level 1

1.    If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?
A. None of these B. A is smaller than B.
C. Relationship between A and B cannot be determined. D. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B.
E. A is greater than B.

 

   

Answer : Option A

Explanation :

A = xy/100 ………….(Equation 1)

B = yx/100……………..(Equation 2)

From these equations, it is clear that A = B

 

 

2.If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as:
A. None of these B. 10% of a
C. 4% of a D. 20% of a

 

Answer :Option C

Explanation :

20% of a = b

=> b = 20a/100

b% of 20 = 20b/100=(20a/100) × 20/100

=(20×20×a)/(100×100)=4a/100 = 4% of a

 

3.Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.
A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 1 D. 4 : 3

 

 

Answer :Option D

Explanation :

5% of A + 4% of B = 2/3(6% of A + 8% of B)

5A/100+4B/100=2/3(6A/100+8B/100)

⇒5A+4B=2/3(6A+8B)

⇒15A+12B=12A+16B

⇒3A=4B

⇒AB=43⇒A:B=4:3

4.The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. What is the Average percent increase of population per year?
A. 4% B. 6%
C. 5% D. 50%

 

Answer :Option C

Explanation :

Increase in the population in 10 years = 2,62,500 – 1,75,000 = 87500

% increase in the population in 10 years = (87500/175000)×100=8750/175=50%

Average % increase of population per year = 50%/10=5%

 

5.Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
A. 57% B. 50%
C. 52% D. 60%

 

Answer :Option A

Explanation :

Votes received by the winning candidate = 11628

Total votes = 1136 + 7636 + 11628 = 20400

Required percentage = (11628/20400)×100=11628/204=2907/51=969/17=57%

 

6.A fruit seller had some oranges. He sells 40% oranges and still has 420 oranges. How many oranges he had originally?
A. 420 B. 700
C. 220 D. 400

 

Answer :Option B

Explanation :

He sells 40% of oranges and still there are 420 oranges remaining

=> 60% of oranges = 420

⇒(60×Total Oranges)/100=420

⇒Total Oranges/100=7

⇒ Total Oranges = 7×100=700

7.A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?
A. 499/11 % B. 45 %
C. 500/11 % D. 489/11 %

 

Answer :Option C

Explanation :

Total runs scored = 110

Total runs scored from boundaries and sixes = 3 x 4 + 8 x 6 = 60

Total runs scored by running between the wickets = 110 – 60 = 50

Required % = (50/110)×100=500/11%

 

8.What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit’s digit?
A. 2023% B. 20%
C. 21% D. 2223%

 

 

Answer :Option B

Explanation :

Total numbers = 70

Total numbers in 1 to 70 which has 1 in the unit digit = 7

Total numbers in 1 to 70 which has 9 in the unit digit = 7

Total numbers in 1 to 70 which has 1 or 9 in the unit digit = 7 + 7 = 14

Required percentage = (14/70)×100=140/7=20%

 

Level 2

 

1.In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, what was the number of valid votes that the other candidate got?
A. 2800 B. 2700
C. 2100 D. 2500

 

Answer :Option B

Explanation :

Total number of votes = 7500

Given that 20% of Percentage votes were invalid

=> Valid votes = 80%

Total valid votes = (7500×80)/100

1st candidate got 55% of the total valid votes.

Hence the 2nd candidate should have got 45% of the total valid votes
=> Valid votes that 2nd candidate got = (total valid votes ×45)/100

=7500×(80/100)×(45/100)=75×(4/5)×45=75×4×9=300×9=2700

 

2.In a competitive examination in State A, 6% candidates got selected from the total appeared candidates. State B had an equal number of candidates appeared and 7% candidates got selected with 80 more candidates got selected than A. What was the number of candidates appeared from each State?
A. 8200 B. 7500
C. 7000 D. 8000

 

Answer :Option D

Explanation :

State A and State B had an equal number of candidates appeared.

In state A, 6% candidates got selected from the total appeared candidates

In state B, 7% candidates got selected from the total appeared candidates

But in State B, 80 more candidates got selected than State A

From these, it is clear that 1% of the total appeared candidates in State B = 80

=> total appeared candidates in State B = 80 x 100 = 8000

=> total appeared candidates in State A = total appeared candidates in State B = 8000

 

3.In a certain school, 20% of students are below 8 years of age. The number of students above 8 years of age is 2/3 of the number of students of 8 years of age which is 48. What is the total number of students in the school?
A. 100 B. 102
C. 110 D. 90

 

 

Answer :Option A

Explanation :

Let the total number of students = x

Given that 20% of students are below 8 years of age

then The number of students above or equal to 8 years of age = 80% of x —–(Equation 1)

Given that number of students of 8 years of age = 48 —–(Equation 2)

Given that number of students above 8 years of age = 2/3 of number of students of 8 years of age

=>number of students above 8 years of age = (2/3)×48=32—–(Equation 3)

From Equation 1,Equation 2 and Equation 3,
80% of x = 48 + 32 = 80

⇒80x/100=80

⇒x100=1⇒x=100

4.In an examination, 5% of the applicants were found ineligible and 85% of the eligible candidates belonged to the general category. If 4275 eligible candidates belonged to other categories, then how many candidates applied for the examination?
A. 28000 B. 30000
C. 32000 D. 33000

 

Answer :Option B

Explanation :

Let the number of candidates applied for the examination = x

Given that 5% of the applicants were found ineligible.

It means that 95% of the applicants were eligible (∴ 100% – 5% = 95%)

Hence total eligible candidates = 95x/100

Given that 85% of the eligible candidates belonged to the general category

It means 15% of the eligible candidates belonged to other categories(∴ 100% – 85% = 15%)
Hence Total eligible candidates belonged to other categories

=(total eligible candidates×15)/100=(95x/100)×(15/100)

=(95x×15)/(100×100)

Given that Total eligible candidates belonged to other categories = 4275

⇒(95x×15)/(100×100)=4275

⇒(19x×15)/(100×100)=855

⇒(19x×3)/(100×100)=171

⇒(x×3)/(100×100)=9

⇒x/(100×100)=3

⇒x=3×100×100=30000

 

5.A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3.What is the percentage error in the calculation?
A. 64% B. 32%
C. 34% D. 42%

 

Answer :Option A

Explanation :

Let the number = 1

Then, ideally he should have multiplied 1 by 5/3.

Hence the correct result was 1 x (5/3) = (5/3)

By mistake, he multiplied 1 by 3/5.

Hence the result with the error = 1 x (3/5) = (3/5)

Error = 5/3−3/5=(25−9)/15=16/15

percentage error = (Error/True Value)×100={(16/15)/(5/3)}×100

=(16×3×100)/(15×5)=(16×100)/(5×5)=16×4=64%

 

6.The price of a car is Rs. 3,25,000. It was insured to 85% of its price. The car was damaged completely in an accident and the Insurance company paid 90% of the insurance. What was the difference between the price of the car and the amount received ?
A. Rs. 76,375 B. Rs. 34,000
C. Rs. 82,150 D. Rs. 70,000

 

Answer :Option A

Explanation :

Price of the car = Rs.3,25,000

Car insured to 85% of its price

=>Insured price=(325000×85)/100

Insurance company paid 90% of the insurance
⇒Amount paid by Insurance company =(Insured price×90)/100

=325000×(85/100)×(90/100)=325×85×9=Rs.248625

Difference between the price of the car and the amount received

= Rs.325000 – Rs.248625 = Rs.76375

 

7.If the price of petrol increases by 25% and Benson intends to spend only an additional 15% on petrol, by how much % will he reduce the quantity of petrol purchased?
A. 8% B. 7%
C. 10% D. 6%

 

 

Answer :Option A

Explanation :

Assume that the initial price of 1 Litre petrol = Rs.100 ,Benson spends Rs.100 for petrol,

such that Benson buys 1 litre of petrol

After the increase by 25%, price of 1 Litre petrol = (100×(100+25))/100=Rs.125

Since Benson spends additional 15% on petrol,

amount spent by Benson = (100×(100+15))/100=Rs.115

Hence Quantity of petrol that he can purchase = 115/125 Litre

Quantity of petrol reduced = (1−115/125) Litre

Percentage Quantity of reduction = ((1−115/125))/1×100=(10/125)/×100=(10/5)×4=2×4=8%

8.30% of the men are more than 25 years old and 80% of the men are less than or equal to 50 years old. 20% of all men play football. If 20% of the men above the age of 50 play football, what percentage of the football players are less than or equal to 50 years?
A. 60% B. 70%
C. 80% D. 90%

 

Answer :Option C

Explanation :

Let total number of men = 100

Then

80 men are less than or equal to 50 years old

(Since 80% of the men are less than or equal to 50 years old)

=> 20 men are above 50 years old (Since we assumed total number of men as 100)

20% of the men above the age of 50 play football

⇒Number of men above the age of 50 who play football = (20×20)/100=4

Number of men who play football = 20 (Since 20% of all men play football)
Percentage of men who play football above the age of 50 = (4/20)×100=20%

=>Percentage of men who play football less than or equal to the age 50 = 100%−20%=80%

Height and Distance

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This topic has many practical application in day to day life. In engineering stage it is used in surveying. The basic purpose is to find the unknown variables by observing the angle of the line of sight. This is done by using some the fact that in a right angled triangle the ratio of any two sides is a function of the angle between them. From exam point of view this is one of the more tough sections and tedious to some extent. So an aspirant must thoroughly solve all the questions given here.

Important Formulas

  1. Trigonometric Basics

sinθ=oppositeside/hypotenuse=y/r

cosθ=adjacentside/hypotenuse=x/r

tanθ=oppositeside/adjacentside=y/x

cosecθ=hypotenuse/oppositeside=r/y

secθ=hypotenuse/adjacentside=r/x

cotθ=adjacentside/oppositeside=x/y

From Pythagorean theorem, x2+y2=r2 for the right angled triangle mentioned above

 

  1. Basic Trigonometric Values

 

θ
in degrees		 θ
in radians		 sinθ cosθ tanθ
0° 0 0 1 0
30° π/6 1/2 3/√2 1/√3
45° π/4 1/√2 1/√2 1
60° π/3 3/√2 1/2 √3
90° π/2 1 0 Not defined

 

  1. Trigonometric Formulas

Degrees to Radians and vice versa

360°=2π radian

 

Trigonometry – Quotient Formulas

tanθ=sinθ/cosθ

cotθ=cosθ/sinθ

 

Trigonometry – Reciprocal Formulas

cosecθ=1/sinθ

secθ=1/cosθ

cotθ=1/tanθ

 

Trigonometry – Pythagorean Formulas

sin2θ+cos2θ=1

sec2θ−tan2θ=1

cosec2θ−cot2θ=1

 

  1. Angle of Elevation

Suppose a man from a point O looks up at an object P, placed above the level of his eye. Then, angle of elevation is the angle between the horizontal and the line from the object to the observer’s eye (the line of sight).

i.e., angle of elevation =  AOP

  1. Angle of Depression

Suppose a man from a point O looks down at an object P, placed below the level of his eye. Then, angle of depression is the angle between the horizontal and the observer’s line of sight

i.e., angle of depression =  AOP

  1. Angle Bisector Theorem

Consider a triangle ABC as shown above. Let the angle bisector of angle A intersect side BC at a point D. Then BD/DC=AB/AC

(Note that an angle bisector divides the angle into two angles with equal measures.
i.e., BAD = CAD in the above diagram)

  1. Few Important Values to memorize

√2=1.414, √3=1.732, √5=2.236

 

Solved Examples

Level 1

1.The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the ladder is 12.4 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
A. 14.8 m B. 6.2 m
C. 12.4 m D. 24.8 m

 

 

Answer : Option D

Explanation :

Consider the diagram shown above where PR represents the ladder and RQ represents the wall.

cos 60° = PQ/PR

1/2=12.4/PR

PR=2×12.4=24.8 m

2.From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If the tower is 200 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
A. 346 m B. 400 m
C. 312 m D. 298 m

 

 

Answer : Option A

Explanation :

tan 30°=RQ/PQ

1/√3=200/PQ

PQ=200√3=200×1.73=346 m

3.The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree is equal to the height of the tree, is:
A. None of these B. 60°
C. 45° D. 30°

 

 

Answer : Option C

Explanation :

Consider the diagram shown above where QR represents the tree and PQ represents its shadow

We have, QR = PQ
Let QPR = θ

tan θ = QR/PQ=1 (since QR = PQ)

=> θ = 45°

i.e., required angle of elevation = 45°

4.An observer 2 m tall is 103√ m away from a tower. The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30º. The height of the tower is:
A. None of these B. 12 m
C. 14 m D. 10 m

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

SR = PQ = 2 m

PS = QR = 10√3m

tan 30°=TS/PS

1/3=TS/10√3

TS=10√3/√3=10 m

TR = TS + SR = 10 + 2 = 12 m

5.From a tower of 80 m high, the angle of depression of a bus is 30°. How far is the bus from the tower?
A. 40 m B. 138.4 m
C. 46.24 m D. 160 m

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

Let AC be the tower and B be the position of the bus.

Then BC = the distance of the bus from the foot of the tower.

Given that height of the tower, AC = 80 m and the angle of depression, DAB = 30°

ABC = DAB = 30° (Because DA || BC)

tan 30°=AC/BC=>tan 30°=80/BC=>BC = 80/tan 30°=80/(1/√3)=80×1.73=138.4 m

i.e., Distance of the bus from the foot of the tower = 138.4 m

6.Find the angle of elevation of the sun when the shadow of a pole of 18 m height is 6√3 m long?
A. 30° B. 60°
C. 45° D. None of these

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

Let RQ be the pole and PQ be the shadow

Given that RQ = 18 m and PQ = 6√3 m

Let the angle of elevation, RPQ = θ

From the right  PQR,

tanθ=RQ/PQ=18/6√3=3/√3=(3×√3)/( √3×√3)=3√3/3=√3

θ=tan−1(3√)=60°

 

Level 2

1.A man on the top of a vertical observation tower observers a car moving at a uniform speed coming directly towards it. If it takes 8 minutes for the angle of depression to change from 30° to 45°, how soon after this will the car reach the observation tower?
A. 8 min 17 second B. 10 min 57 second
C. 14 min 34 second D. 12 min 23 second

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

Consider the diagram shown above. Let AB be the tower. Let D and C be the positions of the car

Then, ADC = 30° , ACB = 45°

Let AB = h, BC = x, CD = y

tan 45°=AB/BC=h/x

=>1=h/x=>h=x——(1)

tan 30°=AB/BD=AB/(BC + CD)=h/(x+y)

=>1/√3=h/(x+y)

=>x + y = √3h

=>y = √3h – x

=>y = √3h−h(∵ Substituted the value of x from equation 1 )

=>y = h(√3−1)

Given that distance y is covered in 8 minutes
i.e, distance h(√3−1) is covered in 8 minutes

Time to travel distance x
= Time to travel distance h (∵ Since x = h as per equation 1).

Let distance h is covered in t minutes

since distance is proportional to the time when the speed is constant, we have

h(√3−1)∝8—(A)

h∝t—(B)

(A)/(B)=>h(√3−1)/h=8/t

=>(√3−1)=8/t

=>t=8/(√3−1)=8/(1.73−1)=8/.73=800/73minutes ≈10 minutes 57 seconds

2.The top of a 15 metre high tower makes an angle of elevation of 60° with the bottom of an electronic pole and angle of elevation of 30° with the top of the pole. What is the height of the electric pole?
A. 5 metres B. 8 metres
C. 10 metres D. 12 metres

 

 

Answer : Option C

Explanation :

Consider the diagram shown above. AC represents the tower and DE represents the pole

Given that AC = 15 m , ADB = 30°, AEC = 60°

Let DE = h

Then, BC = DE = h, AB = (15-h) (∵ AC=15 and BC = h), BD = CE

tan 60°=AC/CE=>√3=15/CE=>CE = 15√3— (1)

tan 30°=AB/BD=>1/√3=(15−h)/BD

=>1/√3=(15−h)/(15/√3)(∵ BD = CE and Substituted the value of CE from equation 1)

=>(15−h)=(1/√3)×(15/√3)=15/3=5

=>h=15−5=10 m

i.e., height of the electric pole = 10 m

 

3.Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30º and 45º respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
A. 300 m B. 173 m
C. 273 m D. 200 m

 

 

Answer : Option C

Explanation :

Let BD be the lighthouse and A and C be the positions of the ships.
Then, BD = 100 m,  BAD = 30° ,  BCD = 45°

tan 30° = BD/BA⇒1/√3=100/BA

⇒BA=100√3

tan 45° = BD/BC

⇒1=100/BC

⇒BC=100

Distance between the two ships = AC = BA + BC
=100√3+100=100(√3+1)=100(1.73+1)=100×2.73=273 m

4.From the top of a hill 100 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a pole are 30° and 60° respectively. What is the height of the pole?
A. 52 m B. 50 m
C. 66.67 m D. 33.33 m

 

Answer : Option C

Explanation :

Consider the diagram shown above. AC represents the hill and DE represents the pole

Given that AC = 100 m

XAD = ADB = 30° (∵ AX || BD )
XAE = AEC = 60° (∵ AX || CE)

Let DE = h

Then, BC = DE = h, AB = (100-h) (∵ AC=100 and BC = h), BD = CE

tan 60°=AC/CE

=>√3=100/CE=>CE = 100/√3— (1)

tan 30°=AB/BD=>1/√3=(100−h)/BD

=>1/√3=(100−h)/(100/√3)(∵ BD = CE and Substituted the value of CE from equation 1 )

=>(100−h)=1/√3×100/√3=100/3=33.33=>h=100−33.33=66.67 m

i.e., the height of the pole = 66.67 m

5.A vertical tower stands on ground and is surmounted by a vertical flagpole of height 18 m. At a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bottom and the top of the flagpole are 30° and 60° respectively. What is the height of the tower?
A. 9 m B. 10.40 m
C. 15.57 m D. 12 m

 

 

Answer : Option A

Explanation :

Let DC be the vertical tower and AD be the vertical flagpole. Let B be the point of observation.

Given that AD = 18 m, ABC = 60°, DBC = 30°

Let DC be h.

tan 30°=DC/BC

1/√3=h/BC

h=BC√3—— (1)

tan 60°=AC/BC

√3=(18+h)/BC

18+h=BC×√3—— (2)

(1)/(2)=>h/(18+h)=(BC/√3)/(BC×√3)=1/3

=>3h=18+h=>2h=18=>h=9 m

i.e., the height of the tower = 9 m

6.A balloon leaves the earth at a point A and rises vertically at uniform speed. At the end of 2 minutes, John finds the angular elevation of the balloon as 60°. If the point at which John is standing is 150 m away from point A, what is the speed of the balloon?
A. 0.63 meter/sec B. 2.16 meter/sec
C. 3.87 meter/sec D. 0.72 meter/sec

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

Let C be the position of John. Let A be the position at which balloon leaves the earth and B be the position of the balloon after 2 minutes.

Given that CA = 150 m, BCA = 60°

tan 60°=BA/CA

√3=BA/150

BA=150√3

i.e, the distance travelled by the balloon = 150√3meters

time taken = 2 min = 2 × 60 = 120 seconds

Speed = Distance/Time=150√3/120=1.25√3=1.25×1.73=2.16 meter/second

7. The angles of depression and elevation of the top of a wall 11 m high from top and bottom of a tree are 60° and 30° respectively. What is the height of the tree?
A. 22 m B. 44 m
C. 33 m D. None of these

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

Let DC be the wall, AB be the tree.

Given that DBC = 30°, DAE = 60°, DC = 11 m

tan 30°=DC/BC

1/√3=11/BC

BC = 11√3 m

AE = BC =11√3 m—— (1)

tan 60°=ED/AE

√3=ED/11√3[∵ Substituted the value of AE from (1)]

ED =11√3×√3=11×3=33

Height of the tree = AB = EC = (ED + DC) = (33 + 11) = 44 m

 

8. Two vertical poles are 200 m apart and the height of one is double that of the other. From the middle point of the line joining their feet, an observer finds the angular elevations of their tops to be complementary. Find the heights of the poles.
A. 141 m and 282 m B. 70.5 m and 141 m
C. 65 m and 130 m D. 130 m and 260 m

 

 

Answer : Option B

Explanation :

Let AB and CD be the poles with heights h and 2h respectively

Given that distance between the poles, BD = 200 m

Let E be the middle point of BD.

Let AEB = θ and CED = (90-θ) (∵ given that angular elevations are complementary)

Since E is the middle point of BD, we have BE = ED = 100 m

From the right  ABE,
tanθ=AB/BE and tanθ=h/100

h = 100tanθ—— (1)

From the right  EDC,

tan(90−θ)=CD/ED

cotθ=2h/100[∵tan(90−θ)=cotθ]

2h =100cotθ—— (2)

(1) × (2) => 2h2=1002[∵tanθ×cotθ=tanθ×1/tanθ=1]

=>√2h=100

=>h=100/√2=(100×√2)/( √2×√2)=50√2=50×1.41=70.5

2h=2×70.5=141

i.e., the height of the poles are 70.5 m and 141 m.

9. To a man standing outside his house, the angles of elevation of the top and bottom of a window are 60° and 45° respectively. If the height of the man is 180 cm and he is 5 m away from the wall, what is the length of the window?
A. 8.65 m B. 2 m
C. 2.5 m D. 3.65 m

 

 

Answer : Option D

Explanation :

Let AB be the man and CD be the window

Given that the height of the man, AB = 180 cm, the distance between the man and the wall, BE = 5 m,
DAF = 45° , CAF = 60°

From the diagram, AF = BE = 5 m

From the right  AFD, tan45°=DF/AF

1=DF/5

DF = 5—— (1)From the right  AFC, tan60°=CF/AF

√3=CF/5

CF=5√3—— (2)

Length of the window = CD = (CF – DF)

=5√3−5[∵ Substitued the value of CF and DF from (1) and (2)]=5(√3−1)=5(1.73−1)=5×0.73=3.65 m

10.The elevation of the summit of a mountain from its foot is 45°. After ascending 2 km towards the mountain upon an incline of 30°, the elevation changes to 60°. What is the approximate height of the mountain?
A. 1.2 km B. 0.6 km
C. 1.4 km D. 2.7 km

 

 

Answer : Option D

Explanation :

Let A be the foot and C be the summit of a mountain.

Given that CAB = 45°

From the diagram, CB is the height of the mountain. Let CB = x

Let D be the point after ascending 2 km towards the mountain such that
AD = 2 km and given that DAY = 30°

It is also given that from the point D, the elevation is 60°

i.e., CDE = 60°

From the right  ABC,

tan45°=CB/AB

=>1=x/AB[∵ CB = x (the height of the mountain)]

=>AB = x—— (eq:1)

From the right  AYD,

sin30°=DY/AD

=>1/2=DY/2(∵ Given that AD = 2)

=> DY=1—— (eq:2)

cos30°=AY/AD=>√3/2=AY/2(∵ Given that AD = 2)=> AY=√3—— (eq:3)

From the right  CED, tan60°=CE/DE=>tan60°=(CB – EB)/YB∵ [CE = (CB – EB) and DE = YB)]

=>tan60°=(CB – DY)/(AB – AY)[ ∵ EB = DY and YB = (AB – AY)]

=>tan60°=(x – 1)/(x -√3)∵ [CB = x, DY = 1(eq:2), AB=x (eq:1) and AY = 3√(eq:3)]

=>√3=(x – 1)/(x -√3)=>x√3−3=x−1=>x(√3−1)=2=>0.73x=2=>x=2/0.73=2.7

i.e., the height of the mountain = 2.7 km

Origin and evolution of earth

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Beginning of the Universe started about 13.6 billion years ago,when the Big Bang created the universe from a point source.
During this process, Light Elements, like H, He, Li, B, and Be formed. From this point in time, the universe began to expand and has been expanding ever since.
Concentrations of gas and dust within the universe eventually became galaxies consisting of millions of stars.
Within the larger stars, nuclear fusion processes eventually created heavier elements, like C, Si, Ca, Mg, K, and Fe.
Stars eventually collapse and explode during an event called a supernova. During a supernova, heavier elements, from Fe to U, are formed. (See figure 1.9 in your text).
Throughout galaxies clusters of gas attracted by gravity start to rotate and accrete to form stars and solar systems. For our Solar System this occurred about 4.6 billion years ago.
The ball at the center grows dense and hot, eventually nuclear fusion reactions start and a star is born (in our case, the sun).
Rings of gas and dust orbiting around the sun eventually condenses into small particles. These particles are attracted to one another and larger bodies called planetismals begin to form.
Planetesimals accumulate into a larger mass. An irregularly-shaped proto-Earth develops.
The interior heats and becomes soft. Gravity shapes the Earth into a sphere. The interior differentiates into a nickel-iron core, and a stony (silicate) mantle.
Soon, a small planetoid collides with Earth. Debris forms a ring around the Earth.The debris coalesces and forms the Moon.
The https://exam.pscnotes.com/atmosphere”>Atmosphere develops from volcanic gases. When the Earth becomes cool enough, moisture condenses and accumulates, and the Oceans are born.

Drainage System of India

by

  • Drainage: Flow of water through well-defined channels. Network of such channels is called a Drainage System .
  • Drainage basin: An area drained by a river and its tributaries.
  • Watershed: Boundary line separating one drainage basin from other.
  • River basins are larger watersheds.
  • Drainage pattern of an area depends on the geological time period, nature and structure of rocks, topography, rocks, slope, amount of water and periodicity of flow.

Important drainage patterns:

  1. Dendritic: Resembling the branches of a tree. Eg. Northern Plain rivers
  2. Radial: Originate from a hill and flow in all directions. Eg. Rivers in Amarkantak
  3. Trellis: Primary tributaries parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right angles.
  4. Centripetal: Rivers discharge waters from all directions in a lake or depression

A river drains the water collected from a specific area, which is called its catchment area.

Nearly 77 pc of drainage is towards the Bay of Bengal while about 23 pc is towards the Arabian Sea.

The Himalayan Drainage System

Mainly includes the Ganga, Indus and Brahmaputra river basins.

Over the plains, rivers of this system change the course often. River Kosi is also known as the ‘sorrow of Bihar’ due to flooding by its frequent change of course by deposition of sediments.

Evolution

Geologists believe that a mighty river called Shivalik or Indo-Brahma traversed the entire length of the Himalayas some 5-24 million years ago. Over time this got dismembered into the present three major river systems.

The Indus System

Indus river originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in Tibet in the Kailash Mountain range. Known as Singi Khamban (Lion’s mouth) in Tibet. It forms a spectacular gorge near Gilgit in J&K. Enters Pakistan near Chillar in the Dardistan region. Flows only through the Leh distt of J&K.

Smaller tributaries: Shyok, Gilgit, Zaskar, Nubra, Hunza, Shigar, Gasting, Dras. On right bank: Kabul river, Khurram, Tochi, Gomal, Viboa and hte Sangar.

Major tributaries: Satluj, Beas, Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum

Jhelum Origin: Verinag at foot of Pir Pinjal.

Flows through Srinagar and the Wular lake. Joins Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan
Chenab Origin: Two streams (Chandra and Bhaga) which join at Tandi near Keylong in HP.

Largest tributary of Indus. Aka Chandrabhaga. Flows for 1180 KM before entering Pakistan
Ravi Origin: Kullu hills of HP near Rohtang Pass. Enters Pakistan and joins Chenab near Sarai Sidhu
Beas Origin: Beas Kund near Rohtang pass.

Forms gorges at Kati and Largi in the Dhaoladhar range. Meets Satluj near Harike.
Satluj Origin: Rakas lake near Mansarowar in Tibet. Known as Langchen Khambab in Tibet.

Enters India at Ropar. Antecedent river. Bhakra Nangal Project is on this river.

 

The Ganga System

It is the largest river system in India.

Ganga rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh in the Uttarkashi district. Here it is known as the Bhagirathi. At Devprayag, Bhagirathi meets Alaknanda and is known as Ganga hereafter.

Panchprayag

Vishnu Ganga Joshimath

Dhauli and Vishnu Ganga meet to form Alaknanda
   
   
   
   

 

Alaknanda Origin: Satopanth glacier above Badrinath. Consists of Dhauli and Vishnu Ganga.
Yamuna Origin: Yamnotri glacier on Banderpunch range. Joins Ganga at Prayag (Allahabad).

RBT: Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken

LBT: Hindan, Rind, Sengar, Varuna.

Agra canal
Chambal Origin: Mhow in Malwa plateau.

Gandhi Sagar dam, Rana Pratap Sagar dam and Jawahar Sagar dam.

Famour for Chambal ravines.
Gandak Origin: In Nepal between Dhaulgiri and Mt. Everest. Enters Ganga plain in Champaran and joins Ganga at Sonpur near Patna.

Two streams: Kaliganfak and Trishulganga.

 
Ghaghra Origin: Glaciers of Mapchachungo

Tributaries: Tila, Seti and Beri

Deep gorge at Shishpani

Sarda (Kali) joint it and meet Ganga at Chhapra.
Kosi Origin: North of Mt. Everest in Tibet.

Tributaties: Son Kosi, Tamur Kosi, Arun

Changes course often. Sorrow of Bihar.
   

 

  • Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar.
  • Left Bank tributaries (LBT): Ramganga, Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi and Mahananda.
  • Right Bank tributaries (RBT): Son
  • Discharges into Bay of Bengal near Sagar island.

 

 

 

 

 

      Energy Resources of India
       
35. Coal Jharkhand Jharia, Bokaro, Giridh, karanpura, Ramgarh, Daltonganj,
      Aurangabad, Hutar, Deogarh, Rajmahal
36.   Orissa Talcher, Rampur
37.   M.P (Former) Central Indian Coalfields -Singrauli, Sohagpur, Johilla, Umaria
      Satupura Coalfields – Pench, Kanhan, Pathkhera
      North Chhattisgarh – Chirmiri-Kaurasia, Bisrampur, Jhillmili,
      Sonhat, Lakhanpur, Sendurgarh, lakhanpur-Ramkola
      South Chhattisgarh-Hasdo-Arand, Korba, Mand-Raigarh
38.   West Bengal Raniganj, Darjeeling

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

39.   Andhra Pr. Singareni, Kothgundam, Tandur
40.   Maharashtra Chanda-Wardha, Kamptee, Bander
41. Tetiary Meghalaya Daranggiri, Cherpunji, Laitryngew, Mawlong, Langrin, Pendengru,
  coal   Longoi, Waimong
42.   Assam Makum, Jaipur, Nazira
43.   Arunachal Pr Namchuk-Namphuk
44.   J & K Kalakot, Mohogala, Metka
45.   Rajasthan Palana (lignite) & Khari
46. Petroleum North-East Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran, Rudrasagar, Galeki, Hugrijan, Nigru,
      Borholla
47.   Gujarat Ankeleshwar, Kalol, Nawagam, Kosamba, Kathana,
      Barkol,Mehsana, Sanand, Lunej, Aliabet island
48.   Mumbai High Bombay high, Bassein
49.   East Coast Narimanam, Kovillapal, Amlapur, Rawa
50.   Other Jaiselmer, Jwalamukhi Area (Punjab)
51. Natural Mumbai Bombay high, Bassein
52. Gas Gujarat Jagatia, Gogha
53.   Assam Nahorkatiya & Moran
54.   https://exam.pscnotes.com/tamil”>Tamil Nadu Neypaltur, Mangamadam, Avadi, Virugambakam
55.   Tripura Baranura, Atharnure
56.   Rajasthan Barmer, Charaswala
57.   Arunachal Pr Non Chick, Mia-Pung, Laptan pung
58.   Himachal Pr Jwalamukhi, Kangra
59.   West Bengal Medinipur
60. Uranium   Jaduguda (Jharkhand), Bhatin, Narwapahar under Uranium
      Corportation in India are the only mines worked at present
61. Thorium   Beach Sands (Kerala), Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pr, Orissa

 

India in the Eighteenth Century

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Bahadur Shah 1 (1707-12)

  • Muzam succeeded Aurungzeb after latter’s death in 1707
  • He acquired the title of Bahadur Shah.
  • Though he was quite old (65) and his rule quite short there are many significant achievements he made
  • He reversed the narrow minded and antagonistic policies of Aurungzeb
  • Made agreements with Rajput states
  • Granted sardeshmukhi to Marathas but  not Chauth
  • Released Shahuji (son of Sambhaji) from prison (who later fought with Tarabai)
  • Tried to make peace with Guru Gobind Sahib by giving him a high Mansab. After Guru’s death, Sikhs again revolted under the Leadership of Banda Bahadur. This led to a prolonged war with the Sikhs.
  • Made peace with Chhatarsal, the Bundela chief and Churaman, the Jat chief.
  • State finances deteriorated

Jahandar Shah (1712-13)

  • Death of Bahadur Shah plunged the empire into a civil war
  • A noted feature of this time was the prominence of the nobles
  • Jahandar Shah, son of Bahadur Shah, ascended the throne in 1712 with help from Zulfikar Khan
  • Was a weak ruler devoted only to pleasures
  • Zulfikar Khan, his wazir, was virtually the head of the administration
  • ZK abolished jizyah
  • Peace with Rajputs: Jai Singh of Amber was made the Governor of Malwa. Ajit Singh of Marwar was made the Governor of Gujarat.
  • Chauth and Sardeshmukh granted to Marathas. However, Mughals were to collect it and then hand it over to the Marathas.
  • Continued the policy of suppression towards Banda Bahadur and Sikhs
  • Ijarah: (revenue farming) the government began to contract with revenue farmers and middlemen to pay the government a fixed amount of https://exam.pscnotes.com/money”>Money while they were left free to collect whatever they could from the peasants
  • Jahandhar Shah defeated in January 1713 by his nephew Farrukh Siyar at Agra

Farrukh Siyar (1713-19)

  • Owed his victory to Saiyid Brothers: Hussain Ali Khan Barahow and Abdullah Khan
  • Abdullah Khan: Wazir,                    Hussain Ali: Mir Bakshi
  • FS was an incapable ruler. Saiyid brothers were the real rulers.
  • Saiyid Brothers
    • Known the Indian HISTORY as King Makers
    • adopted the policy of religious Tolerance. Abolished jizyah (again?). Pilgrim tax was abolished from a number of places
    • Marathas: Granted Shahuji swarajya and the right to collect chauth and sardeshmukhi of the six provinces of the Deccan
    • They failed in their effort to contain rebellion because they were faced with constant political rivalry, quarrels and conspiracies at the court.
    • Nobles headed by Nizam-ul-Mulk and Muhammad Amin Khan began to conspire against them
    • In 1719, the Saiyid Brothers killed and overthrew FS.
    • This was followed by placing, in quick SUCCESSION, of two young princes who died of consumption
    • Murder of the emperor created a wave of revulsion against the SB. They were looked down as ‘namak haram’
  • Now, they placed 18 year old Muhammad Shah as the emperor of India
  • In 1720, the nobles assassinated Hussain Ali Khan, the younger of the SB. Abdullah Khan was also defeated at Agra

Muhammad Shah ‘Rangeela’ (1719-1748)

  • Weak-minded, frivolous and over-fond of a life of ease
  • Neglected the affairs of the state
  • Intrigued against his own ministers
  • Naizam ul Mulk Qin Qulich Khan, the wazir, relinquished his office and founded the state of Hyderabad in 1724
    • “His departure was symbolic of the flight of loyalty and virtue from the Empire”
  • Heriditary nawabs arose in Bengal, Hyderabad, Awadh and Punjab
  • Marathas conquered Malwa, Gujarat and Bundelkhand
  • 1738: Invasion of Nadir Shah

 

Nadir Shah’s Invasion (1738)

  • Attracted to India by its fabulous wealth. Continual campaigns had made Persia bankrupt
  • Also, the Mughal Empire was weak.
  • Didn’t meet any resistance as the defense of the north-west frontier had been neglected for years
  • The two armies met at Karnal on 13th Feb 1739. Mughal army was summarily defeated. MS taken prisoner
  • Massacre in Delhi in response to the killing of some of his soldiers
  • Plunder of about 70 crore rupees. Carried away the Peacock throne and Koh-i-noor
  • MS ceded to him all the provinces of the Empire west of the river Indus
  • Significance: Nadir Shah’s invasion exposed the hidden weakness of the empire to the Maratha sardars and the foreign trading companies

Ahmed Shah Abdali

  • One of the generals of Nadir Shah
  • Repeatedly invaded and plundered India right down to Delhi and Mathura between 1748 and 1761. He invaded India five times.
  • 1761: Third battle of Panipat. Defeat of Marathas.
  • As a result of invasions of Nadir Shah and Ahmed Shah, the Mughal empire ceased to be an all-India empire. By 1761 it was reduced merely to the Kingdom of Delhi

Shah Alam II (1759-

  • Ahmed Bahadur (1748-54) succeeded Muhammad Shah
  • Ahmed Bahadur was succeeded by Alamgir II (1754-59)
    • 1756: Abdali plundered Mathura
  • Alamgir II was succeeded by Shah Jahan III
  • Shah Jahan III succeeded by Shah Alam II in 1759
  • Shah Alam spent initial years wandering for he lived under the fear of his wazir
  • In 1764, he joined forces with Mir Qasim of Bengal and Shuja-ud-Daula of Awadh in declaring a war upon the British East India company. This resulted in the Battle of Buxar
  • Pensioned at Allahabad
  • Returned to Delhi in 1772 under the protection of Marathas

Decline of the Mughal Empire

  • After 1759, Mughal empire ceased to be a military power.
  • It continued from 1759 till 1857 only due to the powerful hold that the Mughal dynasty had on the minds of the people of India as a symbol of the political unity of the country
  • In 1803, the British occupied Delhi
  • From 1803 to 1857, the Mughal emperors merely served as a political front of the British.
  • The most important consequence of the fall of the Mughal empire was that it paved way for the British to conquer India as there was no other Indian power strong enough to unite and hold India.

Succession States

  • These states arose as a result of the assertion of autonomy by governors of Mughal provinces with the decay of the central power
  • Bengal, Awadh, Hyderabad

Hyderabad and the Carnatic

  • Founded by Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah in 1724
  • Tolerant policy towards Hindus
    • A Hindu, Puran Chand, was his Dewan.
  • Established an orderly administration in Deccan on the basis of the jagirdari system on the Mughal pattern
  • He died in 1748
  • Nawab of Carnatic freed himself of the control of the Viceroy of the Deccan and made his office hereditary
    • Saadutullah Khan of Carnatic made his nephew Dost Ali his successor

Bengal

  • 1700: Murshid Quli Khan made the Dewan of Bengal
  • Freed himself of the central control
  • Freed Bengal of major uprisings
    • Three major uprisings during his time: Sitaram Ray, Udai Narayan and Ghulam Muhammad, and then by Shujat Khan, and finally by Najat Khan
  • Carried out fresh revenue settlement. Introduced the system of revenue-farming.
  • Revenue farming led to the increased distress of the farmers
  • Laid the foundations of the new landed aristocracy in Bengal
  • MQK died in 1727. Succeeded by Shuja-ud-din.
  • 1739: Alivardi Khan killed and deposed Shuja-ud-din’s son, Sarfaraz Khan, and made himself the Nawab
  • All three Nawabs encouraged merchants, both Indian and foreign.
  • Safety of roads and rivers. Thanas and Chowkies at regular intervals.
  • Maintained strict control over the foreign trading companies
  • They, however, did not firmly put down the increasing tendency of the English East India Company to use military force, or to threaten its use, to get its demands accepted.
  • They also neglected to build a strong army

Awadh

  • 1722: Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk
  • Suppressed rebellions and disciplined the Zamindars
  • Fresh revenue settlement in 1723
  • Did not discriminate between Hindus and Muslims. The highest post in his government was held by a Hindu, Maharaja Nawab Rai
  • Died in 1739. Succeeded by Safdar Jung.
  • SJ’s reign was an era of peace
  •  made an alliance with the Maratha sardars
  • Carried out warfare against Rohelas and Bangash Pathans
  • Organized an equitable system of Justice
  • Distinct culture of Lucknow developed during his period

Mysore

  • Haidar Ali, in 1761, overthrew Nanjaraj and established his own authority over Mysore
  • 1755: Established a modern arsenal at Dindigal with the help of French experts
  • Conquered Bidnur, Sunda, Sera, Canara and Malabar
  • He conquered Malabar because he wanted access to the Indian Ocean
  • First and Second Anglo-Mysore War
  • 1782: Succeeded by Tipu Sultan
  • TS was an innovator. Introduced a new calendar, a new system of coinage and new scales of weights and measures.
  • Keen interest in French Revolution
    • Planted a ‘tree of Liberty’ at Srirangapatnam and became a member of the Jacobin Club
  • Made efforts to build a modern navy
  • Mysore flourished economically under Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan
  • Sent missions to France, Turkey, Iran and Pegu Myanmar to develop Foreign Trade
  • Some historians say that Tipu was a religious fanatic. But facts don’t support this assertion.

 

 

Kerala

  • Divided into large number of feudal chiefs in the 18th century
  • Four important states
    • Calicut (under Zamorin), Chirakkal, Cochin and Travancore
  • In 1729, Travancore rose to prominence under King Martanda Varma
  • Conquered Quilon and Elayadam, and defeated the Dutch
  • From 1766 Haidar Ali invaded Kerala and annexed northern Kerala up to Cochin
  • Revival of Malyalam literature

Rajput States

  • Rajputana states continued to be divided as before
  • Raja Sawai Jai Singh of Amber was the most outstanding ruler of the era
    • Founded the city of Jaipur
    • Made Jaipur a great seat of science and art
    • Astronomer. Erected observatories at Jaipur, Ujjain, Varanasi, and Mathura
    • Drew up a set of tables, entitled Zij Muhammadshahi, to enable people to make astronomical observations
    • Translated Euclid’s “Elements of Geometry” into Sanskrit
    • Social reformers. Reduce lavish marriage expenditures.

Jats

  • Jat peasants revolted in 1669 and 1688
  • Jat state of Bharatpur set up by Churaman and  Badan Singh
  • Reached its highest glory under Suraj Mal, who ruled from 1756 to 1763

Sikhs

  • Sikhsim transformed into a militant religion during Guru Hargobind (1606-45), the sixth guru.
  • Guru Gobind Singh waged constant war against the armies of Aurangzeb and the hill rajas
  • After Guru Gobind Singh’s death (1708), leadership passed to Banda Singh (Banda Bahadur)
    • He struggled with the Mughal army for 8 years
    • Put to death in 1715
  • Banda Bahadur failed because
    • Mughal centre was still strong
    • Upper classes and castes of Punjab joined forces against him
    • He could not integrate all the anti-Mughal forces because of his religious bigotry
  • After the withdrawal of Abdali from Punjab, Sikhs were again resurgent
  • Between 1765 and 1800 they brought the Punjab and Jammu under their control
  • They were organized into 12 misls
  • Ranjit Singh
    • Chief of the Sukerchakia Misl
    • Captured Lahore (1799) and Amritsar (1802)
    • Conquered Kashmir, Peshawar and Multan
    • Possessed the second best army in Asia
    • Tolerant and liberal
    • Fakir Azizuddin and Dewan Dina Nath were his important ministers
    • “known to step down from his throne to wipe the dust off the feet of Muslim mendicants with his long grey beard”
    • Negative point: He did not remove the threat of British. He only left it over to his successors. And so, after his death, when his kingdom was torn by intense internal struggle, English conquered it.

Marathas

  • Maratha Families
    • Peshwa – Pune
    • Gaekwad – Baroda
    • Bhosle – Nagpur
    • Holkar – Indore
    • Scindia – Gwalior
  • The most powerful of the succession states
  • Could not fill the political vacuum because
    • Maratha Sardars lacked unity
    • Lacked the outlook and programme which were necessary for founding an all-India empire
  • Shahuji
    • Son of Sambhaji
    • Imprisoned by Aurungzeb
    • Released in 1707
    • Civil war between Shahu and his aunt Tarabai who ruled in the name of her infant son Shivaji II
    • The conflict gave rise to a new era of Maratha leadership, the era of Peshwa leadership
  • Balaji Vishwnath
    • 1713: Peshwa of King Shahu
    • Induced Zulfikar Khan to grant the chauth and sardeshmukhi of the Deccan
    • Helped the Saiyid brothers in overthrowing Farukh Siyar
    • Maratha sardars were becoming individually strong but collectively weak
    • Died in 1720. Succeeded by his son Baji Rao I
  • Baji Rao I
    • the greatest extent of guerrilla tactics after Shivaji
    • Vast areas ceded by the Mughals
    • Marathas won control over Malwa, Gujarat and parts of Bundelkhand
    • Rivalry with Nizam ul Mulk
    • Compelled the Nizam to grant chauth and sardeshmukhi of the Deccan provinces
    • 1733: Campaign against Sidis of Janjira and The Portuguese (Salsette and Bassein)
    • Died in 1740
    • Captured territories but failed to lay the foundations of an empire
    • Succeeded by Balaji Baji Rao (Nana Saheb)
  • Balaji Baji Rao (1740-61)
    • Shahu died in 1749. Peshwas became the de facto rulers
    • Shifted the capital to Poona
    • Captured Orissa
    • Mysore forced to pay tributes
    • In 1752, helped Imad-ul-Mulk to become the wazir
    • Brought Punjab under their control and expelled the agent of Ahmad Shah Abdali
      • This led AS Abdali to come to India to settle accounts with Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat
    • Third Battle of Panipat
      • ASA formed an alliance with Najib-ud-daulah of Rohilkhand and Shuja-ud-daulah of Awadh.

Saranjami system?

Social and economic condition

Administrative Setup and Administrative Culture in Rajasthan.

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Within a state there is generally a four-tier structure of ad- ministration – division, district, taluka/tehsil/block, and village. The district has been so far the most important unit of administration. Some of the states have introduced the system of https://exam.pscnotes.com/panchayati-raj”>Panchayati Raj, generally a three-tier structure of local self- government in rural areas at the vil- lage, block and district levels. Two recent constitutional amendments have bestowed on the local bodies in rural and urban areas constitutional status and specific functions including Education, covering education upto secondary level, technical training and Vocational Education, adult and non-formal education. These amendments will strengthen decentralised management of educa- tion at the grass-root level.

 

 

For the administrative ease rajasthan has been devided into following seven devisions:-

 

1          Ajmer Division

2          Bharatpur Division

3          Bikaner Division

4          Jaipur Division

5          Jodhpur Division

6          Kota Division

7          Udaipur Division

 

 

 

Districts of Rajasthan

 

 

 

 

 

 

Citizen’s charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standard of Services, Information, Choice and Consultation, Non-discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value for Money.

The main objective of the exercise to issue the Citizen’s Charter of an organisation is to improve the quality of public services. This is done by letting people know the mandate of the concerned Ministry/ Department/ Organisation, how one can get in touch with its officials, what to expect by way of services and how to seek a remedy if something goes wrong. The Citizen’s Charter does not by itself create new legal rights, but it surely helps in enforcing existing rights. This website provides the details of Citizen’s Charter of various Ministries/ Departments/ Organistions of the Government of India.

The basic objective of the Citizen’s Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to Public Service delivery. The six principles of the Citizen’s Charter movement as originally framed were:

 

(i) Quality: Improving the quality of services;

 

(ii) Choice: Wherever possible;

 

(iii) Standards: Specifying what to expect and how to act if standards are not met;

 

(iv) Value : For the taxpayers’ money;

 

(v) Accountability: Individuals and Organisations; and

 

(vi) Transparency: Rules/Procedures/Schemes/Grievances.

 

These were later elaborated by the Labour Government as the nine principles of Service Delivery (1998), which are as follows:-

 

  1. Set standards of service

 

  1. Be Open and provide full information

 

  1. Consult and involve

 

  1. Encourage access and the promotion of choice

 

  1. Treat all fairly

 

  1. Put things right when they go wrong

 

  1. Use Resources effectively

 

  1. Innovate and improve

 

  1. Work with other providers

Government of Rajasthan(Administrative Reforms and Coordination Department, Jaipur, Rajasthan) manages the citizen charters in the state Following departments have issued there separate charters, which could be accessed from their websites.

 

  1. Registration and Stamps Department, Rajasthan, Ajmer

 

  1. Food and Civil Supplies Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Revenue Department

 

  1. Local Bodies

 

  1. Transport Department

 

  1. Medical & Health & Associate Hospitals

 

  1. SMS Medical College & Hospital, Jaipur

 

  1. Jawahar Lal Nehru Medical College, Ajmer

 

  1. Psychiatry Centre & Mental Hospital, Jaipur

 

  1. Sir Padampat Mother & Child Health Institute , Jaipur

 

  1. Chest & T.B. Hospital, Jaipur

 

  1. Mahila Chikitsalaya, Jaipur

 

  1. Zenana, Hospital, Jaipur

 

  1. Medical & Health Services (E.S.I) Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Police Department

 

  1. Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation, Jaipur

 

  1. Labour Deprtment

 

  1. Factories & Boilers Department

 

  1. Land & Buildings Taxes Department

 

  1. Commercial Taxes Department

 

  1. Bureau of Anticorruption, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Command Area Development & Water Utilization Department

 

  1. Mines & Geology Department

 

  1. Literacy & Adult Education Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Irrigation Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Animal Husbandry Department

 

  1. Jaipur Vidyut Vitran Nigam Ltd, Jaipur (Jaipur DISCOM)

 

  1. State Insurance & General Provident Fund Department

 

  1. Home Guard & Civil Aviation Department

 

  1. Colonization Department

 

  1. Jaipur Development Authority

 

  1. Women & Child Development Department

 

  1. Secondary Education Department

 

  1. Citizen’s Charter for Divisional Commissioners’ Office

 

  1. Higher Education, Jaipur

 

  1. Panchayati Raj Department

 

  1. Technical Education Department

 

  1. Public Works Department

 

  1. Agriculture-notes-for-state-psc-exams”>Agriculture Marketing Department

 

  1. Settlement Department

 

  1. Rural Development Department

 

  1. Directorate of Water Shed Development & Soil Conservation Department

 

  1. Fisheries Department

 

  1. Cooperative Department

 

  1. EMPLOYMENT Department

 

  1. Agriculture Marketing Board

 

  1. Public Health Engineering Department

 

  1. Rajasthan State Industrial Development & Investment Corporation Ltd., Jaipur

 

  1. Industries Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Rajasthan Finance Corporation (RFC)

 

  1. Small Savings Department

 

  1. Vidut Nirikshanalaya Rajasthan, Jaipur (Electrical Inspector, Rajasthan, Jaipur)

 

  1. Agriculture Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Forest Department

 

  1. Director, Elementary Education, Rajasthan, Bikaner

 

  1. Director, Prosecution, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Jail Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Tourism, Art and Culture Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Devasthan Department, Rajasthan, Udaipur

 

  1. Excise Department, Rajasthan, Udaipur

 

  1. Director, Horticulture Department, Rajasthan, Jaipur

 

  1. Town Planning Department, Jaipur (JLN Marg).

 

 

The Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011

The Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011 guarantees the delivery of 108 services in 53 areas concerning 15 departments. The time period kept for the delivery of services ranges from one day in the case of removal of animal carcasses from public places to two days for driving licences, 75 days for land use conversion and a maximum of 90 days for sanction of old age pension. Issue of birth/death certificates has been promised in 7-15 days and new ration card in seven days.

 

Right To Information

RTI stands for Right To Information and has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article 19(1) of the Constitution. Article 19 (1) under which every citizen has freedom of speech and expression and have the right to know how the government works, what role does it play, what are its functions and so on.

Right to information act empowers every citizen to seek any information, take notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records, take certified samples of material.

Current Geopolitical Conflicts

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Geopolitical Conflict is the Military engagements and diplomatic crises between nations with global implications and which even threatens in extreme circumstance to the survival of humanity.Various types of Geopolitical Conflicts are as follows:-

Ø  Conventional War:-The engagement of two or more nations in military conflict, using conventional weapons to target military https://exam.pscnotes.com/infrastructure”>Infrastructure and invade/defend Sovereignty

Ø  Asymmetric War:- Military action, insurgency and violent resistance carried out between combatants of significantly different power, Resources, and interests

Ø  Nuclear War:- Military Conflict pursued using nuclear weapons

Ø  Civil War:- Internal conflict within a country, including wars of SUCCESSION and coups d’etat

Ø  External Force:- Blockades, No-Fly zones, missile attack or other military action by external forces to prevent national authorities pursuing internal policies deemed harmful or repugnant

 

Currently several geopolitical conflict zones across the globe are observed , Few of them are:-

  • Syrian Civil WarThe Syrian civil war is an ongoing multi-sided armed conflict in Syria in which international interventions] have taken place. The war grew out of the unrest of the 2011 Arab Spring and escalated to armed conflict after President Bashar al-Assad’s government violently repressed protests calling for his removal. The war is now being fought among several factions: the Syrian Government, a loose alliance of Syrian Arab rebel groups, the Syrian Democratic Forces, Salafi jihadist groups (including al-Nusra Front) who often co-operate with the rebels, and the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIL). The factions receive substantial support from foreign actors, leading many to label the conflict a proxy war waged by both regional and global powers.

Syrian opposition groups formed the Free Syrian Army and seized control of the area surrounding Aleppo and parts of southern Syria.

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  • Russia and Turkey:-On 24 November 2015, Turkish F-16 combat aircraft shot down a Russian Su-24 during an airspace dispute close to the Turkish-Syrian border. In response, Russia imposed a number of economic sanctions on Turkey. These included the suspension of visa-free travel to Russia for Turkish citizens, limits on Turkish residents and companies doing business in Russia and restrictions on imports of Turkish products
  • Afghanistan and Pakisthan
  • India and Pakisthan
  • India and Nepal
  • South China Sea
  • Libyan Crisis
  • Sudan Internal ethnic conflict
  • Nigeria: Boko Haram terrorists
  • Iraq
  • Isreal and Palestine
  • EU: Inflow of refugees from West Asia & N.Africa
  • Iran and Saudi Arabia
  • Yemen
  • Russia and Ukraine
  • Greece and EU
  • Myanmar

Mazor Causes of Conflicts :-

Perhaps more than at any time in our HISTORY, our world is engaged in conflict. From the UK and USA engaged at war in Afghanistan and Iraq, through to insurgencies in Algeria, Burma and Columbia, civil wars in African nations, and conflict between people in China, Iran and Israel, we see that we are in a fragile landscape.

Over the past century, a number of facets of humanities development have contributed to this, including:

  • Economics: From early colonialism to modern capitalism, our western economic Growth has often been at the detriment of other nations where, for example, we have aggressively acquired assets, created trade routes, or leveraged economic scale to source products, assets, and Services artificially cheaply. These processes, while creating great wealth and development in Europe and the USA, have exacerbated POVERTY and economic inequality in many nations, creating a great deal of tension and potential for conflict.
  • Agriculture-notes-for-state-psc-exams”>Agriculture and Energy: Our world is hugely dependent on agriculture and energy. Both of these asset classes are in huge demand, with their protection and development becoming serious debate. Population and economic growth also puts huge strains on these assets, as our world comes close to consuming greater than is sustainable.
  • Technology: While technology has been a huge enabler for global development, it has also made our injustices and inequalities more visible to external and internal participants in any situation.
  • Climate-change”>Climate Change: This is now becoming a real and significant issue with millions worldwide becoming displaced by climatic effects.
  • Religion, Governance, and Politics: These issues, and their allied topics of Human Rights, Justice, and so forth have historically caused many of the world’s most significant conflicts, and continue to do so as often these issues are the most fundamental in the structure of a Society.